“Uzair is the son of Allah”;
is a statement mentioned in the Qur’an as being a statement of the Jews, but only a sect among the Jews believe that and not all of them.
How can we respond to that?
We find in the Qur’an the use of such type of phrases where Allah speaks about people worshiping Mary, when we know there is only a sect among the Catholics that ended up worshiping Mary. So again this question can be raised there for Catholics too. The Catholics do call upon Mary in their prayers but not all Christians do that. The point is that as long as it is something that was held by some and it is a legitimate part of that group, then, by Allah making that statement it is in reference of the existence of the idea among the Jews. But if you notice in the Qur’an the idea of Jesus being the son of God is being repeated several times throughout the Qur'an; whereas the issue of Uzair is discussed at only one place, implying the same that it is not the common call or claim of Jews but it does exist. But as for the Christian it’s a common practice so it is described repeatedly throughout the Qur'an.
 Surah at-Tawba, 9:30< Back to Questions